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Notes -
This is not how land title works in traditional livestock-grazing societies. Multiple cow-owners' cattle can graze the same land as long as the total number of cattle does not exceed the capacity of the land. And the smallest efficient land holding for grazing cattle is much larger than the amount of land actually needed for one family's cattle. So you end up with various forms of communal ownership of rough grazing land. The most primitive is collective ownership and customary management by the whole tribe/village, but England and Wales developed two more formal systems - under levency and couchancy the right to graze livestock on the common land associated with a village in summer is tied to stabling the livestock in the village and feeding them locally grown hay in the winter, and under stinting the right to graze a certain number of livestock on the common land becomes a property right (initially tied to owning a specific plot of land in the village, later separately tradeable). In the US, most of the rough grazing in the west is government land.
tl;dr - There are sound practical reasons why rough grazing land is not privately owned. The resulting OG tragedy of the commons has been understood, and institutions have existed for solving it, since time immemorial.
Sounds like the community is an organization that owns the land, and has rules about how each person can use it. Nothing you said contradicts anything that I wrote. Customary rights to graze a certain amount at a certain time is still a form of property right, same as an easment is a form of property right. Not all property rights are "you have 100% total control to do whatever you want."
Is your argument against "ownership" in general? Or is your argument that ownership by a single person is bad, ownership by a family is bad, ownership by a joint-stock corporation is bad, but ownership by a cooperative is OK?
My argument is that grazing rights are typically not exclusive, whereas the previous poster had given grazing rights as an example where exclusivity was practically necessary. I wasn't making a policy argument for or against "ownership" - I was declining to do so on the basis that real-world arrangements are often more complex (and in the case of land, almost always more complex) than the Jurisprudence for Dummies idea of "ownership".
It's still exclusive to the group that actual owns it. Someone from a neighboring tribe can't bring all their cattle and graze it without permission (or there would be war).
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It sounds like grazing rights are exclusive, just the ownership is held commonly by the townsfolk and the excluded members are non-townsfolk. A passing cowboy would be deprived.
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