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I think, once again, you're interpreting me as making an anti-abortion argument when I'm really not. I'm not saying that every woman who gets pregnant should be forced to carry to term. I'm simply saying that it's dumb and facile to argue "I may have consented to sex, but I never consented to pregnancy" as some kind of automatic get-out-of-jail-free card. If Y is a likely and foreseeable consequence of X, and you know that Y is a foreseeable consequence of X (i.e. you are informed when you make your decision), then voluntarily consenting to X entails voluntary consent to Y. Abortion is the only case I'm aware of in which people claim otherwise. I would genuinely love to see a second example of a situation in which consenting to X is not taken to consenting to Y where Y is a likely, foreseeable consequence of X. Actually, even "foreseeable consequence" is underselling the point I'm making: pregnancy is the purpose of heterosexual sex! It's like claiming you consented to aiming and pulling the trigger, but never consented to firing the gun.
If pro-abortion activists argued "when I had sex, I implicitly consented to getting pregnant, but I didn't fully appreciate the gravity of that decision until after I actually got pregnant, and now I've changed my mind", I would find that line of reasoning perfectly coherent. When they argue "I consented to unprotected sex but never consented to pregnancy, therefore abortion should be legal", this just strikes me as a complete non sequitur.
Hmmm I got that you are pro-abortion but I think I disagree on the perceived weakness of the risk/responsibility argument.
If Y is a possible and foreseeable consequence of X, and you know that Y is a potential risk of X (i.e. you are informed when you make your decision), then voluntarily consenting to X does not entail voluntary consent to Y or require a duty to endure Y without mitigation.
I'd say that abortion is the only case where people have a special pleading that this is not the case. I think there a great many arguments where people would get significantly up in arms at the insinuation that by doing X you need to endure all the consequences of Y even if Y is a very known and common risk associated with X.
Does it change your calculus if the only way to mitigate Y once the dice have rolled poorly is to push cost Z onto an unwilling third party? I think that's the core of the disagreement between you and your interlocutors.
I think that pushing the cost Z of a foreseeably risk Y of taking action X to a third party is such an observably common phenomenon that anyone objecting to it in all cases is either a saint, a hermit, or a hypocrite.
Examples:
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