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Notes -
The study explains that the numbers in this table are z-values on a normal distribution, not percentages.
A simpler version of this formula is
=NORM.S.INV(0.005+Pknown*0.99). The inverse is=(NORM.S.DIST(prevalence,TRUE)-0.005)/0.99. So, for "gauss", prevalences of +0.64 for men vs. +0.31 for women actually mean percentages of 74 percent for men vs. 62 percent for women.That makes sense. I’ve seen the table reproduced as a graph with percentages, I guess nobody (including me sadly) bothers to read the actual study.
From a quick look, although there’s not a direct easy conversion AFAIK, 0.15 prevalence is about 56% familiarity, 0.5 is about 70%, and 0.8 is 80%, so it’s not the massive gap originally presented.
But I think all the study did was check if the participants knew it was a word or not by having them pick out the real ones from a list of gibberish?
I gave one in an edit.
More or less.
But they largely replicated the results by administering three ordinary multiple-choice vocabulary tests, with r = 0.69 vs. the original test.
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