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See, you presuppose existence of logic. You wield its power - but how and why does the logic or by extension math exist? Is math also existing in space and time, adding new numbers or laws of logic as underlying matter evolves? Imagine a space where there is only one physical particle. Does it embody the number "two"? If yes or if not how and why?
This is what I hammer all the time. How can you claim access to logic without grounding? It is the true presuppositional argument - logic and math exists. Because I use it. But you can use all kind of things, does it mean that inside of a paradigm anything that can be "used" exists? Again, how and why it exists. And not in first-order way how child asks, but paradigmatically.
Okay, this seems like a very strong claim. What is the grounding for that? You are a finite person who does not have access to things like "everything". Why do you believe this? This was the point of Hume and Quine - there is no grounding for such a strong claim.
No, this is scientism. Science is just a method - a method which explicitly denies access to universal statements and truth as all "truths" are provisional. What you claim is absolutely unscientific, I can tell you right now: give me falsifiable criteria to the claim "all theories across every branch of science are all converging on that same conclusion". This claim itself is not scientific, it is a theological claim of belief.
These are pure unfalsifiable fairy tales. They rely on belief in "truth" of some presuppositions. These supposedly scientific multiverse theories are at best bunch of speculative cosmological philosophy and at worst just made up things build on unstable grounds. There is nothing scientific about them. You cannot ground them on science, because again science is just a method. It is akin to recipe for bread, it has no philosophical grounding.
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