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Culture War Roundup for the week of October 31, 2022

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I am fairly skeptical of the idea that classical enlightenment era liberties are especially well protected by the US constitution.

If by this you mean to compare the Constitution to the laws of other nations, I believe that US rights are indeed "especially well protected." As I argued at the top of this comment, other nations do not have rights, but merely "rights" which, compared to the Constitution, are entirely unprotected.

If you mean an absolute level of protection, then I agree that the Constitution provides only partial protection, and a great deal of individual and cultural effort is required.

The US Constitution is just as much a piece of paper as the Charter. It falls to institutions of government and ultimately the people who compose and choose them to enforce those rights.

If by paper you mean "worthless" or "mere formality", I disagree. Again, refer to my comment above, specifically the section on the right against self-incrimination. The Constitution may be a piece of paper, but it is clearly and obviously not "just as much a piece of paper" as the Charter or the laws of England.

The right against self-incrimination is set forth in the Constitution of Canada

And it's overridden by s. 1 of the Charter, which states "this is all null and void if we feel like it".

I am much less likely to have those rights violated by the government when in Canada

I routinely have my property rights violated by the government of Toronto and Ottawa Canada. Of course, property rights don't exist in Canada (and if they did they'd be worthless so long as s. 1 exists), but still.

Can the government(s) of Canada not just "notwithstanding" the Canadian version of the right against self-incrimination?

Edit:

The notwithstanding clause:

Section 33. (1) Parliament or the legislature of a province may expressly declare in an Act of Parliament or of the legislature, as the case may be, that the Act or a provision thereof shall operate notwithstanding a provision included in section 2 or sections 7 to 15 of this Charter.

The right you cited:

Section 11. Any person charged with an offence has the right: (c) not to be compelled to be a witness in proceedings against that person in respect of the offence

Premise1: The notwithstanding clause applies to sections 7 to 15

Premise2: Section 11 is within sections 7 to 15

Conclusion1: the notwithstanding clause applies to section 11

Conclusion2: The Canadian government can legally write a law that prohibits section 11 from applying to Canadians by invoking the notwithstanding clause

Premise3: The Fifth Amendment would prevent the US government from passing a law as contemplated in Conclusion2

Conclusion3: Therefore, Canadians have less/fewer protections and less recourse for violations.

Technically, there would be no violation because the notwithstanding clause "makes it legal" as they say.

I am saying even if the paper rights are stronger in the US, the culture of rights is so much weaker that the paper rights get routinely violated.

You have to have rights to have a culture of rights. See also, Canadian firearms law, the recent handgun ban by fiat, the trucker protest, the monarchy, etc.

The US Government could, at any time, amend the Constitution to curtail the 5th amendment, no?

No. It needs three quarters of the states to ratify the amendment.

Given situations like https://www.bbc.com/news/world-us-canada-55959133 , do you really find Canada to have better respect for rights?

The Constitution recognizes rights, it does not grant them. So, legally, the removal of the Fifth Amendment would have no effect. I also reject the validity of the 18th Amendment, but I digress.

In any event, the need to "repeal" a constitutional amendment before passing a law that violates said right is one more speedbump than the Canadian Charter has, as Parliament can just pass the law and invoke the notwithstanding clause, which seems to be evidence in favor of my claim that the Constitution is superior protector of rights.

The Constitution certainly does grant rights legally.

Can you expand on what you mean, here? The statement 'the Constitution...grant[s] rights legally' is literally false. Happy to supply evidence on this point. What evidence would you accept?