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Well, no, you wish you thought it was true. It sounds like you can't even in theory imagine a world where it's actually true; such a world would not just give you a sense of purpose but an actual purpose!
More importantly, belief in Christianity doesn't necessarily follow from it being true. So you don't necessarily get any of the things you've listed even if it is true.
What is the distinction between a "sense" of purpose and an "actual" purpose? How would a human person know how to distinguish between the two in the wild?
It's the same as the difference between a perception of anything and the thing itself. The map is not the territory.
When I write code, the code has no sense of purpose at all, yet still has a purpose. The same goes for humans if Christianity is true--purpose doesn't need to be perceived to exist.
There's a difference between applying that statement to a physical object, vs. to an intangible trait or quality.
Wasn't the community just arguing over this with Scott's piece on "the purpose of a system is what it does"? This doesn't clear things up any. There is your intention as the author; there is the result of the code as it functions; there are various interpretations of the code by outside observers/users...none of which necessarily overlap or align. Which is the objective "purpose" and what is the reliable method for determining it?
It doesn't matter which of these you'd like to call "purpose"--with any of them there's a difference between that and a "sense of purpose". It's reasonable to discuss code having a purpose by any definition, it's certainly not reasonable to talk about it having a sense of purpose.
I don't care to litigate the proper definition of the word "purpose". So long as you agree that the concept exists, I think we can agree that it's a different thing from the perception of it, which is my point.
Can you come up with any definition of the word "purpose" that does not differentiate between itself and a perception of itself? If not, why are we arguing?
I'm not sure I do agree that the concept exists independently of an observer/interpreter, either external (as in the case of someone reading code), or internal (as in a person asking "what is my purpose").
We're talking specifically about the hypothetical where Christianity is true. There is an omniscient being in this hypothetical. There is no concept that exists independent of any observer, period.
So can we agree that, in this hypothetical, one can have purpose without knowing it?
I don't think so, because I don't know what an "objective" purpose would even be, hence my original question. An omniscient being would be aware of an infinite number of perceived purposes for a person, but that doesn't make any of the purposes non-subjective.
This whole discussion is a waste of time. I refuse to debate you further about the exact technical definition of "purpose" and whether it exists objectively or just subjectively, no matter how much you want to have that debate.
OP mentions three benefits "if Christianity were true":
Are these the first things that come to mind for you if Christianity is actually true? Not, say, the ability to see dead loved ones in the afterlife, or the knowledge that prayer works? Every one of these is strongly compatible with belief in Christianity, and in fact the benefits exist even if Christianity is not in fact true.
I think a charitable (and accurate) reading is something like "I wish Christianity were true, because then I'd believe in it, and I'd get the benefits of belief." But certainly what he's referring to is benefits of belief in Christianity. If you can't see this I don't know what to tell you.
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