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Notes -
I would probably choose the word "rationalization" over "explanation," but thanks.
Here's a thought experiment. Suppose society is made up of 2 groups, one favored and the other disfavored. It could be whites and blacks; gentiles and Jews; women and men; or whatever. Suppose further that there is a hypothetical social norm which, generally speaking, is a good idea. For example "don't play loud music in the library." Would you rather have a world where (1) the social norm does not exist at all; or (2) the social norm exists, but is enforced only as to the disfavored group?
This is a very interesting question, and I think my answer would depend on the specifics (my apologies - I know this is not a satisfying answer). I think sometimes people reframe natural divisions as "disfavored groups" - for instance someone complaining about how "disfavored groups" have a social norm of having to work to sustain themselves - wherein the disfavored group is "adults." But I think a lot of times a social norm of disparate treatment breeds resentment that is itself a bad thing.
Still, if we imagine that only women aren't allowed to play loud music in the library...I might bite the bullet and hope that doing so reduces my odds of hearing loud music at all.
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