This weekly roundup thread is intended for all culture war posts. 'Culture war' is vaguely defined, but it basically means controversial issues that fall along set tribal lines. Arguments over culture war issues generate a lot of heat and little light, and few deeply entrenched people ever change their minds. This thread is for voicing opinions and analyzing the state of the discussion while trying to optimize for light over heat.
Optimistically, we think that engaging with people you disagree with is worth your time, and so is being nice! Pessimistically, there are many dynamics that can lead discussions on Culture War topics to become unproductive. There's a human tendency to divide along tribal lines, praising your ingroup and vilifying your outgroup - and if you think you find it easy to criticize your ingroup, then it may be that your outgroup is not who you think it is. Extremists with opposing positions can feed off each other, highlighting each other's worst points to justify their own angry rhetoric, which becomes in turn a new example of bad behavior for the other side to highlight.
We would like to avoid these negative dynamics. Accordingly, we ask that you do not use this thread for waging the Culture War. Examples of waging the Culture War:
-
Shaming.
-
Attempting to 'build consensus' or enforce ideological conformity.
-
Making sweeping generalizations to vilify a group you dislike.
-
Recruiting for a cause.
-
Posting links that could be summarized as 'Boo outgroup!' Basically, if your content is 'Can you believe what Those People did this week?' then you should either refrain from posting, or do some very patient work to contextualize and/or steel-man the relevant viewpoint.
In general, you should argue to understand, not to win. This thread is not territory to be claimed by one group or another; indeed, the aim is to have many different viewpoints represented here. Thus, we also ask that you follow some guidelines:
-
Speak plainly. Avoid sarcasm and mockery. When disagreeing with someone, state your objections explicitly.
-
Be as precise and charitable as you can. Don't paraphrase unflatteringly.
-
Don't imply that someone said something they did not say, even if you think it follows from what they said.
-
Write like everyone is reading and you want them to be included in the discussion.
On an ad hoc basis, the mods will try to compile a list of the best posts/comments from the previous week, posted in Quality Contribution threads and archived at /r/TheThread. You may nominate a comment for this list by clicking on 'report' at the bottom of the post and typing 'Actually a quality contribution' as the report reason.

Jump in the discussion.
No email address required.
Notes -
I guess I don't understand why Plyler v. Doe doesn't settle the issue. Quoting subsection (a) of the holding from the syllabus:
The equal protection clause is, itself, the final clause in the first section of the 14th amendment (emphasis added):
Am I supposed to be reading into this a difference between "subject to" and "within" a state's jurisdiction? Does "jurisdiction" mean something different between two clauses of the same paragraph of the 14th amendment?
I mean, these are legal documents. Generally speaking, any difference in phrasing tends to imply a difference in meaning. Otherwise law writers would use the same phrasing
More options
Context Copy link
It solves the issue if you want it to solve the issue, but that sidesteps the very important Indian exception. The Indian exception is really the tricky part for those who want a broad reading of birthright citizenship because it creates absurd results when applied. By way of example:
2 Indian Parents of the Cherokee Tribe, one set lives in northern North Dakota, one lives in Southern Manitoba. The manitobans they both have children in ND on 1/1/1900, both in North Dakota. The Canadian one gets US citizenship while the one whos parents live in ND does not? Why? No one knows, but it is what is insisted on being the truth under the expansive reading.
More options
Context Copy link
I agree with your assessment. Of course, what the constitution says is what the SCOTUS says it says. And while I do not like the current SCOTUS much, I do not expect them to rule that black is white so that Trump gets his wish.
We might as well discuss if a hypothetical liberal-leaning SCOTUS might set aside centuries of jurisprudence and decide that 2A only applies to flintlock weapons.
If SJ wants to get rid of guns or MAGA wants to get rid of birthright citizenship, the process is the same for either: repeal the amendment. I doubt either will manage that.
More options
Context Copy link
I wrote the below before you deleted/re-wrote this comment. I'm not going to change my reply. I don't think much needs to change.
The boring but true reason behind this is because I pretty much never did block quotes of the syllabus. At least, I don't think I ever did. I pretty much just pulled quotes from opinions.
Sure, as I mentioned, they certainly held that illegal immigrants are within the "no person"/"any person" language of 5A, within the "any person" language of Due Process, and are within "any person within the jurisdiction" of EPC.
I then quoted the section of the opinion where they said there didn't seem to be any difference between the "any person" language of Due Process and the "any person within the jurisdiction" language of EPC. Requoting here, so you don't have to scroll on the big post:
I didn't actually blockquote the paragraph around Footnote 10, so I'll do that now:
It actually came before the first quote. I certainly wasn't trying to hide this; I clearly couldn't block quote everything; my post was already hideously long. I don't know that there's all that much that is substantively different between these two block quotes. I even further quoted what I believed to be the opinion's best encapsulation of its notion of jurisdiction:
I went on to block quote the entirety of Footnote 10, rather than just a snippet of it, so that everyone could read the whole thing. It's probably pretty important for what Plyler says about the Citizenship Clause, because to the best of my understanding, it's the only part of the opinion that addresses it directly. That included the entirety of the sentence that you pulled from, rather than just a part of it:
Admittedly, upon looking again, I did miss something! I removed the citation on this sentence. Interestingly, it was the same curious 1912 commentary that I noticed from the sentence that the Respondents quoted. I didn't realize that it was the same thing quoted here. And in fact, I don't think I ever read this part of that commentary (pages 425-427). This is quite the oversight! I'll start from page 421, because some context is needed to understand where they're putting the distinction:
Whew. That was kind of a lot. Also, it was annoying to try to copy/paste from that source; I hope I managed to clean it up acceptably.
Ok, thoughts. First, I want to remember that this is just a person's commentary, not a holding of the Court or anything. They're clearly just trying to interpret some of the same cases that we all know about now. This is their take on interpreting them. It might be right! But that's what it is.
Second, to the best of my reading, this commentary wants to draw the line at residence. They think that if an illegal alien is caught and detained before establishing "residence", then even if they have a child on US soil, the US "refuse[s] the alien's offer of allegiance". Why can't the US 'refuse the offer of allegiance' to an illegal alien who made it across the border undetected? I'm not entirely sure. They seem to not think that a 'bare legal prohibition' can do so:
I'm not entirely sure why? Maybe the "unless" is saying, "Uh, maybe they could pass a law that suffices to do so"? They say that the alien cannot "continue in a position of allegiance to the sovereign against the sovereign's will." But I'm sort of not sure how?
Does this mean that they have to physically prevent them from acquiring residence? How does the sovereign make it "impossible", given the reality of the physical world? Can they do it with a bare legal prohibition? I don't know! It just feels sort of weird to say that they can't get allegiance-by-residence against the sovereign's will, but also say that oopsie-daisy, the sovereign's will didn't have enough of a panopticon to physically show up and physically prevent residence, so they can get allegiance-by-residence against the sovereign's will.
I may be reading it wrong, but even if I'm reading it right, and they think that an illegal immigrant can get allegiance-by-residence against the sovereign's will if the sovereign doesn't physically show up in time to stop it before a baby is born (and thus, the baby is a US citizen), I'm not sure that's the wrong line? I'm not sure it's the right line, either? I don't know!
What I do know is that Plyler cited this for the caveat that the "principles of sovereignty and allegiance" might form some sort of bound on the meaning of "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" for the purposes of the Citizenship Clause. If it does, does that mean this is the case also for "within the jurisdiction"? Does that mean there is this one possible difference? I don't know! As I wrote in the chonker post:
I don't think Plyler cleared this up at all. Maybe the Roberts Court will do so. Maybe they'll say that this 1912 commentary got the principles of sovereignty and allegiance right, and so long as an illegal alien got allegiance-by-residence, even if against the sovereign's will, their child is a citizen. Maybe they'll clarify whether these principles affect both "within the jursidiction" and "subject to the jurisdiction thereof", or whether there's actually a difference that wasn't fully analyzed. I don't know what they'll do! I think it's a mess.
The other thing that I know is that the entire discussion is squarely within the domain of reasoning about sovereignty, allegiance, license (perhaps), and jurisdiction, and the questions there are subtle and difficult. And that the same moment that a person acknowledges that there is something, anything, that actually needs to be said on these topics to be able to explain the various possible cases, the very first place that seems most natural to start from is Schooner. That's why the Amar bros did it. Where else are you going to go to even start building a theory for how this works for even the case of foreign ministers, much less all these other cases?
I'll finish by repeating something that I only said in a reply comment on the chonker post. Perhaps my best reading of Schooner is wrong, and a better reading of how it treats sovereignty/allegiance/license/jurisdiction ends up with a different result. It's even possible that Schooner got some piece of one of the various cases wrong! But I think a person needs to seriously grapple with Schooner to provide a basic framework first, and then one can start looking for how these principles best fit into a theory that can be applied to all the various cases.
I think "acquire a residence" means something stronger than "physically residing". The sovereign has accepted the immigrant's allegiance, however reluctantly, if the immigrant comes to be acknowledged as the lawful resident of a house or apartment within the sovereign's own legal system. If an immigrant goes stealth and squats in an abandoned building without anyone knowing, they could be there thirty years and it wouldn't make a difference - but if they buy or rent a place, and this is on record, and the immigrant would have legal recourse in US courts if someone infringed on their property rights, then the US has in practice accepted them as a subject, whether or not it regards their presence on US soil as theoretically unlawful.
Hence, I read "unless the bare legal prohibition…" as saying "unless we start saying that, because they're not lawful residents, all their real-estate dealings are to be deemed legally void by definition" (which I think is… maybe not quite intended as a reducio ad absurdum, but certainly as a reducio ad this-would-be-a-completely-different-and-very-radical-conversation-that-no-one-seems-prepared-to-have-right-nowum).
Maybe so. I'm not entirely sure. As I was writing this, I just had in the back of my mind that I recalled discussions of "residence"/"domicile", and residence was weaker than domicile, which I remembered also being somewhat weak. It's not helped by the fact that many sources, unless they're really being careful and directly considering the matter, don't bother to specify whether they're talking lawful/unlawful or whether that would change anything.
Looking back at my original massive post, I see this quote from that same commentary:
That seems to me, on first glance, to imply that one can "get residence" and even "get domicile" without anything about it being acknowledged as lawful.
More options
Context Copy link
More options
Context Copy link
More options
Context Copy link
More options
Context Copy link