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PaperclipPerfector  5d ago (text post)   2388 thread views

Friday Fun Thread for May 1, 2026

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If I understand it correctly, the loss is at least capped at the original value of the 100 shares. Basically, you gain the advantage of owning stock without having to put up the same investment up-front, but you should have at least have a substantial percentage of the money for those 100 shares lying around in some way regardless so that you don't have to take a loan if things go south. But if you do this with multiple investment schemes that are in theory un- or only weakly correlated, then you can use the same stack of money as a guarantee for all of them without ever going negative.

This is basically correct. The maximum loss is the strike price of the put x 100 for one contract. Offset by whatever premium you sold the contract for (which you keep).

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