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Notes -
The simple point I'm trying to make is that unless the phosphate levels have been measured during past algal blooms and found to be normal, we can't conclude that currently elevated phosphate levels represent any change at all. It's a mistake to reach for a unique explanation for this particular algal bloom unless we're sure that the conditions that led to this one are not the same as the conditions that have been leading to algal blooms for a hundred years.
"Fertilizer has been running off the grass and elevating phosphate levels, and causing algal blooms, since 1922" appears to be fully consistent with all the facts. Of course, I have not checked if previous phosphate readings were normal.
This assumes that there has never been elevated phosphate in the pool previously. Is that the case?
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