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Notes -
He probably has. My uncle had a friendly relationship with him before this and I can't imagine them not having talked about the situation
Wouldn't that in itself be enough to bury the case even if all the dictionaries of the land agreed that biannual means twice per year?
If there was a clear shared understanding of what the parties were agreeing to, confirmed by 20 years of practice, then should it even matter that the wording of the contract says something different according to common English usage?
(Your cousing lawyer seems to think so, but you say he's a bit pompous so maybe he's too focused on showing off or something.)
EDIT: Actually, shouldn't the uncle be suing the guy he bought the land from? Presumably, he was the one who agreed with your uncle that buying the land will involve the transfer of rights and obligations of the easement agreement so he was the one who misled the buyer about the terms of that agreement and who could've benefitted from that by having the buyer agree to a higher price under the assumption that there's an extra $7500 of revenue attached to the thing over the next 10 years.
I hope one of the Motte's resident lawyers comes and explains how all of this is wrong and my notions of common sense don't apply.
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