Do you have a dumb question that you're kind of embarrassed to ask in the main thread? Is there something you're just not sure about?
This is your opportunity to ask questions. No question too simple or too silly.
Culture war topics are accepted, and proposals for a better intro post are appreciated.

Jump in the discussion.
No email address required.
Notes -
There was also the alternative definition of a gentleman, namely a man with sufficient wealth from acceptable sources (primarily land and government bonds) that he could enjoy an upper-middle-class standard of living without working or being actively involved in the management of a nonfarm business. In Tudor through to early Victorian England, demonstrating that you possessed this level of wealth would (eventually) lead to you being recognised as a gentleman and your children as being born into a gentry family. The old gentry families never really succeeded in pushing back on this (did they even try? - I'm not sure) and "gentry are armigerous" didn't help because the heralds needed money and would happily sell a coat of arms to anyone vaguely suitable who could afford one. Burke's landed gentry used land and office holding as inclusion criteria, not antiquity.
A key difference between the British class system and the pre-French Revolution continental European class system, was that the British considered the gentry to be a non-noble class, so we tended to adopt the wealth-based definition. Whereas the analogous class in continental Europe was the untitled nobility, and was supposed to be a closed-blood class, or at least one where entry required spectacular battlefield achievement recognised by the Crown and could not be bought. A gentilhomme had to be a legal noble, although not necessarily rich (younger sons inherited noble status and privileges, but not the family estates).
More options
Context Copy link