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No it is not, not anywhere close to the extent of Indian society. And the non-Indo-European Dravidians have this endogamy too. I have gave you examples of Indo-European exogamy like the non-Indo-European Etruscans who were found to be identical to the Romans next to them even before they were assimilated to a Roman identity.
The Bell Beakers who both groups were half assimilated were almost 50% EEF. Far more than the Corded Ware Culture people like the Aryans who were only 20-30%. The Latins had nothing like the endogamy in India. Over 2000 years they became identical to their non-Indo-European neighbors. In 3500 years the Brahmins still have more steppe and Harappan ancestry. The Shudras in South India (who are denied, categorically, upper caste status by the Northern Indian Brahmins) have higher steppe and Harappan ancestry than the Dalits.
There is no evidence the Patrician class was more Indo-European in ancestry than the lower classes. Even the Etruscans had similar rates of R1b to the Romans. The Basque who are more EEF shifted than fellow Iberians have higher rates of R1b. The extremely steppe Swedish are modally the non-steppe I1 haplogroup.
The colonials resisted a little bit, but look at them now. They are not quite thoroughly mixed, but they are making great progress, and that is with large amounts of immigration from Europe and even the Middle East and Asia! It isn't panmixia, but you don't need that to remove genetic distinctions between populations. You only need a little.
Finally:
Here's a link on the Indian caste system being Harappan.
https://www.gnxp.com/WordPress/tag/india-genetics/
Here's a line on Eastern Iranian genetics.
https://eurogenes.blogspot.com/2017/12/descendants-of-ancient-european-fair.html
And here, note Brahmins are less than 30% Sintashta like ancestry even in the North-West.
https://razib.substack.com/p/among-afghans-jewel-of-the-dragon
Only the Jats and Rors who are clearly descended of ancient Eastern Iranian peoples, who invaded later, have more steppe ancestry, despite being considered low-caste Shudras.
I noticed the article makes similar claims that steppe ancestry wasn't related to social class in ancient Greece:
Who was the god among the Greco-Romans venerated as embodying the highest degree of power and beauty- worshipped as "The Most Greek" of the gods? It was Apollo the Hyperborean. Apollo was likewise known as Archegetes, meaning Apollo was a founder of civilizations and a colonizer, who "took pleasure" in the creation of cities and contrived their existence. The god embodies a race of civilizational founders who emerged from a northern realm. In the 4th century AD, the physician Adamantius described the "true Greek" - or where the "Hellenic race has been kept pure" as:
The Ionians in particular were understood as directly descended from Apollo.
Apollo was described as the most beautiful and perfect of the gods, establishing a breeding model and aspirational model for men. Here we see the Indo-European, Nordic type posited as a physical ideal among the ancient Greeks. Apollo is the unequivocal embodiment of the Indo-European gene worshipped by the Greco-Romans. The basis for your assertion that the Indian Caste system has non-IE origins is rationalized in your article with:
But caste subdivision was a fact of Greco-Roman civilization. In Ancient Greece the Phratry controlled access to civic society and citizenship. Phratry was itself considered a subdivision of Phyle- tribe, or clan. There were subdivisions within the Phratry known as Genos, from which we derive the modern words gene or genetics.
Unequivocally, in Greco-Roman society we see an identical concern with genetics as religion, including castes and their subdivisions, in the amelioration of an Indo-European gene. This is to say, the caste system in India is Indo-European, and after all both jati and varna are words of Indo-European origin.
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