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Notes -
Except before your edit it's restating an instruction from a much earlier covenant;
Gen 9:6
In your edit in John 8 they were trying to trap him in conflict between Roman and Mosaic law. To stone her would break one, preventing the stoning the other. He avoids the issue by instructing the sinless to cast the first stone. It's still an instruction to cast the stone. I will concede I don't believe Jesus wants us to stone adulteresses though we can divorce them. I believe he threaded the needle of sparing the woman, upholding Mosaic Law and not breaking Roman law. I do not believe this is a general prohibition against stoning, that would preclude the stoning of child sacrificing Molech worshipers.
What is the role of the sword in Rom 13:4?
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