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Notes -
A question, in the context of “national self-determination” (not just modern decolonization, but also 19th century European nationalisms — the Risorgimento, the German question — the WWI dismantlement of the multiethnic Habsburg and Ottoman realms, the Greek and Turkish population exchange, and so on):
Suppose we have two peoples, from two very different places, with very different histories and cultures. Let’s call the places Agbandwe and Berkhamland. Now suppose that, thanks to actions by some Berkhamlanders against some unwilling Agbandweans generations ago, we now find a group of Agbandweans living under a Berkhamlandish government — that is, a government structured according to Berkhamlandish culture and Berkhamlandish norms, staffed mainly by Berkhamlanders — with maybe some assimilated Agbandweans. With regards to how this situation runs counter to the “national self-determination” of these Agbandweans, does it really matter which of the two groups was geographically relocated to produce this situation?
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