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Notes -
Is the explanation for why coastal areas with ocean access are consistently richer than more inland areas really as simple as "ocean access = international trade hub = money"? E.g.,
-south India vs north India
-west Europe vs east Europe
-coastal USA vs middle USA
-Japan/Korea/Taiwan vs coastal China vs inland China
Is there more to it, like say a particular path dependence in each of these regions? Are there significant exceptions (either now or historically)?
Tyranny of the wagon equation.
An ox requires a certain amount of food each day. This is true whether it’s hauling trade goods, soldiers, or that food. The further you’re planning to go, the more of your weight has to go towards feeding your transport. It’s even worse for military maneuvers, since your destination is unlikely to sell you supplies.
Boats have a much, much better rate of return, reducing the cost of doing business immensely. So ocean access is like a multiplier on state capacity. At one point, Rome was importing a ridiculous percentage of its food from across the Mediterranean. In turn, that freed up labor for metallurgy and bureaucracy and all those other structural advantages.
Some rough numbers:
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