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A medical question. I've often heard it said that one is far more likely to contract HIV as a result of gay sex than straight sex. Is this statement true purely as a result of the incidence of HIV infections in the gay male community (i.e. the proportion of gay men who have HIV is vastly higher than the proportion of straight people) - or is there also a mechanical component that makes the virus more likely to spread via certain sexual activities than others? That is to say, supposing Alice and Bob both have HIV, and they've both had it for the same duration, neither are taking PReP. Is Carl more likely to contract HIV as a result of having anal sex with Bob than as a result of having vaginal sex with Alice? Moreover, if Carl had anal sex with Alice, would he have the same risk of contracting HIV as he would if he had anal sex with Bob? Lastly, does it make a difference who the receptive partner is - is Carl more or less likely to contract HIV from Bob if he's the bottom than if he's the top, or does it make a difference?
Anal is way riskier than vaginal.
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