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Notes -
Is there any indicator that they were unique in being not rigged?
From quick look 1940 vote (after Russia invaded central Europe together with Nazi Germany) was blatantly rigged ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/People%27s_Parliament - Lithuania supposedly had 99.2% communist vote with 95.5% turnout, Estonia 92.2% and 81.6%, Latvia 97.6% and 94.7% )
Referendum in Poland run by USSR at that time was clearly falsified.
Why on Earth you would assume that USSR run elections in conquered country were not blatantly rigged?
(I admit that I have not found sources how 1945 were run or even good mention of them, but if Russians have not falsified them - then I would be really surprised)
Being invaded is quite good evidence.
Needing to falsify elections is also a good hint.
Repeated protests that in 1991 were not crushed even by running over protestors with tanks are also quite good evidence.
People declaring independence as soon as Russia lost its power and trying to get away from it is also a good hint.
If previous government was result as invasion by oppressive regime, blatantly oppressed people and independence had clear support - then surely you can do this.
I don't think any Baltic countries ran referendums of elections in 1945.
Looking at the election in Estonia in 1940, electing the parliament that rushed through the annexation:
Well, that is a good way to make impossible to provide evidence that "Baltic referenda in '45 on joining the USSR were rigged" :)
And for 1940 ones I will just requote:
Seriously, anyone that is hearing about USSR-run elections and is not wondering "how they falsified them" is poorly informed.
Especially annexation "referenda" in just conquered areas, the same goes for what Russia run recently in occupied Ukraine.
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