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Sure, let's throw that in to the consumption number.
That brings us to 46% for China and 65% for the US based on the numbers above, once we apply the increase from the text you quoted. Still, the gap is fairly significant.
Yes, there is a big gap. But why does the gap to the US matter at all? You both have abnormal societies.. China is an outlier in its GDP bracket, you are an outlier in yours. Chinese household consumption is similar to its East Asian neighbors. We can quibble about specific datasets, but South Korea is under 50% pretty much no matter how one looks at it. Why is Indian or American ratio inherently better than Chinese or Swiss ratio? This is all a pretty facile discussion, different nations have different systems, your main problem with their system is that it's too internationally competitive, not that Chinese people are poor (and they aren't even that poor).
I don't even have a "problem" with their system in the context of this conversation, and it seems a bit facile to resort to accusations like that when we're discussing a narrow empirical question about Chinese consumption as a fraction of GDP which you were the one to dispute.
@aquota said it's 40%, you said that's bullshit propaganda and provided a paywalled source to support that which, it turns out, suggests the true number is 46%.
Now you're saying that 40%-50% is perfectly normal, actually. Well, maybe, but then why call the original claim imperial propaganda when it's pretty close to correct?
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