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Notes -
Soviet invasion of Poland of 1939, agreed upon in the Molotov Ribbentrop pact, and subsequent occupation of "Eastern Borderlands" (EB) is usually justified on the grounds of either the collapse of Polish governance over EB, making it Terra Nullius, or on Soviets protecting EB from falling to the nazis.
Yet when Polish, communist, government was constituted at the end of WW2 and nazis lost, thus rendering both arguments used to justify Soviet rule of EB null, Warsaw wasn't returned sovereignty over it.
Is there an explanation for this military operation that wouldn't render Soviet administration of EB illegitimate under the Stimson Doctrine?
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