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naraburns  nihil supernum  1yr ago (text post)   3325 thread views

Small-Scale Question Sunday for March 26, 2023

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Another HBD question(the motte's favorite topic). What is the reason for higher north-east Asian IQ? Europeans and Ashkenazi Jews and Brahmins all have plausible enough explanations, but my understanding is that the hajnal line doesn't cover east Asia and that most inhabitants there were rice farmers for thousands upon thousands of years, not scholars.

The explanation I have read is that the equal division of property under Chinese inheritance law combined with higher birthrates among wealthier and presumably more capable farmers led to a trickle-down effect analogous to Gregory Clark's argument for the English gentry in A Farewell to Alms. Pressure to succeed on the Imperial Civil Service Exams may have been another factor, but only affected a small part of the population.

Does this apply in Japan and Korea, as well? The argument from different inheritance law seems plausible, but any explanation has to cover China, Japan, and Korea because all have elevated IQs.

Both copied their institutions more or less directly from China after this system was already established, as did Vietnam, so my guess would be yes.

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