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Culture War Roundup for the week of March 27, 2023

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An anonymous substacker has written up a good piece on the Rise of the West. Essentially, he comes to the conclusion that the divergence began in the 1000-1500 A.D. period and that subsequent colonisation efforts by Europe of the rest of the world was simply an outgrowth of those earlier advantages.

This of course upends the familiar trope of "the West got rich by the backs of the Third World" so popular with leftists in the West and in countries like India, across the political spectrum. I bring this up because if the poor countries of the world today have any hope of catching up, they should first re-examine honestly why they fell behind in the first place. Yet I see precious little of that, except mostly moral grandstanding about the evils of the exploitative West.

This also has domestic political implications because a lot of white guilt-driven narratives are sprung from the narrative that the West got rich by exploitation and thus the logical corollary is that evil white people should repent (preferably through monetary reparations). The narrative that colonisation was simply a natural outgrowth of European pre-existing advantages that grew over time naturally undermines it. One could also note that the Barbary slave trade, or the slave auctions in the Ottoman Empire, shows that the Third World was far from innocent. But of course these historical facts don't have high political payoffs in the contemporary era, so they are ignored or underplayed.

I am not sure that there is anything particularly new here. Even without analyzing Europe vs. the rest of the world between 1000 and 1500 CE, the most likely theory by far to explain why multiple different small European countries came to dominate most of the rest of the world soon after 1500 CE is that those European countries had massive advantages compared to the rest of the world. There is no other plausible explanation. The idea that Europe had no advantages but still somehow came to conquer almost the entire planet is so implausible that there is not much need to counter it. I think it would be pretty hard to find any leftist who is even in the least bit capable of intellectual thought who actually believes that Europe somehow conquered the rest of the world without having already had an advantage over the rest of the world. It is just that, for example, they generally do not think that the advantage was genetic.

Also, even if Europe was already wealthier than the rest of the world in some ways before 1500 CE, it is nonetheless true that Europe got part of its wealth through exploiting the rest of the world, so the case for reparations is not seriously affected by this line of argument. If a wealthy successful guy steals from a less successful guy, is the victim owed any fewer reparations as a result? Even if the wealthy guy later helps the victim to get richer than he would otherwise have been, is the victim owed any fewer reparations as a result? In my view, no. There is a perfectly logical line of argument that says that reparations are owed for the original victimization and it does not matter whether the victim came to later in some ways benefit from the victimization.

the most likely theory by far to explain why multiple different small European countries came to dominate most of the rest of the world soon after 1500 CE is that those European countries had massive advantages compared to the rest of the world. There is no other plausible explanation.

This is just kicking the can down the road though, from "What advantages did those nations have" to "Why did those nations have those advantages and other nations didn't" or "Why did those nations capitalise their advantages when other nations didn't?"

China had thousand-year-plus advantages over the West in terms of urbanisation and per capita GDP and raw population and paper money and yadda yadda yadda before 1000. "Having massive advantages" is clearly not sufficient to BTFO the world.