naraburns nihil supernum
2yr ago
(text post)
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Israel-Gaza Megathread #1
This is a megathread for any posts on the conflict between (so far, and so far as I know) Hamas and the Israeli government, as well as related geopolitics. Culture War thread rules apply.
But the viceroyalty of new Spain, to which Mexico is the successor state, had them for hundreds.
This would also grant them claim to much of the rest of the US, the Carribean, and Central America. Most people in the West at least don't grant that modern Russia has a valid claims the territories that its predecessor the USSR once held. Most people back in 56 also found in galling when the USSR revoked Hungary's privledges of self-governance and reinstated dictatorship, which seems somewhat anologous to Santa Anna's suspension of the constitution and installation of himself as a dictator prior to the war. But maybe Mexico's claim was more valid than it seems, I'm sure you know more about Texas history than I do.
And BTW it’s a myth that Mexico settled Texas at lightly as California; the currently populated parts of Texas(except San Antonio) were pre-Anglo settlement very lightly peopled, but border disputes between the republic of Texas and the Mexican empire led to the incorporation of lots of Mexican settlement into the territory which would later become the state of Texas.
Oh really? That's interesting. You have anything you recommend to read on how much population / settled areas got incorporated?
But maybe Mexico's claim was more valid than it seems, I'm sure you know more about Texas history than I do.
It’s not, but the point is that Texas was only part of Mexico for 15 years, and California for 25, because Mexico qua Mexico had only existed for that amount of time when those states broke off, not because of shifting borders and lack of historical justification.
Oh really? That's interesting. You have anything you recommend to read on how much population / settled areas got incorporated?
It’s a 7th and 10th grade history curriculum in Texas- the tdlr is that the republic of Texas claimed territories north of the Rio grande, while Mexico claimed territories north to the nueces river. The region was rural but not by the standards of rural northern Mexico in the 1830’s particularly sparsely populated and there was significant back and forth in terms of actual territorial control. The descendants of these settlers still live there and constitute the majority in some regions, call themselves the tejanos, and the situation was eventually resolved by the Mexican-American war followed by the state of Texas being paid a large sum of money to accept its current borders.
3/4 of Texas’s current population and almost all of its Anglo population lives in San Antonio and northeast, with the border population in particular mostly descending from people who have lived there since it was part of Spain(and the panhandle and interior west simply very sparsely populated). Hispanic settlement mostly focused on the border with a projection up to San Antonio(literally founded as a district admin capital by the Spanish) and Anglo settlement was focused on the eastern third, particularly towards the south of it(which has good soil for cotton plantations). Like most such cases, the Anglo settled region became far more prosperous than the Hispanic settled zone, and thus the population shifted over time towards that same eastern third.
It’s not, but the point is that Texas was only part of Mexico for 15 years, and California for 25, because Mexico qua Mexico had only existed for that amount of time when those states broke off, not because of shifting borders and lack of historical justification.
Sure but we normally don't assume that post-colonial nations have clear rights to all of their former sovereign's land; nobody thinks Colombia maintains a strong claim on Ecuador and Venezuela just because Gran Colombia was a successor state to the Viceroyalty of New Grenada.
the tdlr is that the republic of Texas claimed territories north of the Rio grande, while Mexico claimed territories north to the nueces river. The region was rural but not by the standards of rural northern Mexico in the 1830’s particularly sparsely populated and there was significant back and forth in terms of actual territorial control.
Do you have any estimates on population size? I feel like everything I'm looking at says the Nueces strip was fairly sparsley populated because of the consistent problem of Indian raids. Or is the point just that they weren't as unsettled as California or the rest of rural Mexico?
The_Nybbler
If you win the rat race you're still a rat. But you're also still a winner.
Soriek 2yr ago
This would also grant them claim to much of the rest of the US, the Carribean, and Central America. Most people in the West at least don't grant that modern Russia has a valid claims the territories that its predecessor the USSR once held.
That is because Russia is not the only successor state to the USSR. Ukraine, the Baltics, Georgia, etc, all are also successor states of the USSR (or rather, the various "Soviet Republics"). Nobody argues Russia's claim on Moscow goes back only to 1991.
Alta California, Santa Fe de Nuevo Mexico, and Texas were also their own administrative divisions with their own Governors under New Spain, and Texas at least was genuinely federated under Mexico (Cali had a legislature that the Mexican gov never recognized). The central Mexican government's tearing up of the constitution and revoking of their federated privledges is part of how the Texan revolution started.
It didn't break down super neatly in the USSR either. Plenty of the Republics of course had only nominal independence, likely less than Texas, and had their borders adjusted at will from above; the Karelia-Finnish Republic was turned into part of Russia, and of course none of the Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republics got independence.
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Notes -
This would also grant them claim to much of the rest of the US, the Carribean, and Central America. Most people in the West at least don't grant that modern Russia has a valid claims the territories that its predecessor the USSR once held. Most people back in 56 also found in galling when the USSR revoked Hungary's privledges of self-governance and reinstated dictatorship, which seems somewhat anologous to Santa Anna's suspension of the constitution and installation of himself as a dictator prior to the war. But maybe Mexico's claim was more valid than it seems, I'm sure you know more about Texas history than I do.
Oh really? That's interesting. You have anything you recommend to read on how much population / settled areas got incorporated?
It’s not, but the point is that Texas was only part of Mexico for 15 years, and California for 25, because Mexico qua Mexico had only existed for that amount of time when those states broke off, not because of shifting borders and lack of historical justification.
It’s a 7th and 10th grade history curriculum in Texas- the tdlr is that the republic of Texas claimed territories north of the Rio grande, while Mexico claimed territories north to the nueces river. The region was rural but not by the standards of rural northern Mexico in the 1830’s particularly sparsely populated and there was significant back and forth in terms of actual territorial control. The descendants of these settlers still live there and constitute the majority in some regions, call themselves the tejanos, and the situation was eventually resolved by the Mexican-American war followed by the state of Texas being paid a large sum of money to accept its current borders.
3/4 of Texas’s current population and almost all of its Anglo population lives in San Antonio and northeast, with the border population in particular mostly descending from people who have lived there since it was part of Spain(and the panhandle and interior west simply very sparsely populated). Hispanic settlement mostly focused on the border with a projection up to San Antonio(literally founded as a district admin capital by the Spanish) and Anglo settlement was focused on the eastern third, particularly towards the south of it(which has good soil for cotton plantations). Like most such cases, the Anglo settled region became far more prosperous than the Hispanic settled zone, and thus the population shifted over time towards that same eastern third.
Sure but we normally don't assume that post-colonial nations have clear rights to all of their former sovereign's land; nobody thinks Colombia maintains a strong claim on Ecuador and Venezuela just because Gran Colombia was a successor state to the Viceroyalty of New Grenada.
Do you have any estimates on population size? I feel like everything I'm looking at says the Nueces strip was fairly sparsley populated because of the consistent problem of Indian raids. Or is the point just that they weren't as unsettled as California or the rest of rural Mexico?
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That is because Russia is not the only successor state to the USSR. Ukraine, the Baltics, Georgia, etc, all are also successor states of the USSR (or rather, the various "Soviet Republics"). Nobody argues Russia's claim on Moscow goes back only to 1991.
Alta California, Santa Fe de Nuevo Mexico, and Texas were also their own administrative divisions with their own Governors under New Spain, and Texas at least was genuinely federated under Mexico (Cali had a legislature that the Mexican gov never recognized). The central Mexican government's tearing up of the constitution and revoking of their federated privledges is part of how the Texan revolution started.
It didn't break down super neatly in the USSR either. Plenty of the Republics of course had only nominal independence, likely less than Texas, and had their borders adjusted at will from above; the Karelia-Finnish Republic was turned into part of Russia, and of course none of the Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republics got independence.
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