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By your reasoning here, an outright racial slur is not anti-(a race).
I don't understand. Isn't a racial slur saying something negative about people? That is certainly my understanding.
I'm going down the list of slurs in my head, and can't think of a single one that says a specific negative thing about anybody. They're just another way if saying someone is black/Jewish/gay/etc.
? If they aren't negative, then what makes them slurs?
Since you demand that others point to a specific negative thing the Sisters of Perpetual Indulgence are saying about Catholics/Catholicism, the burden should be on you to point how these slurs say anything negative about each group.
The only thing that seems to make something a slur, is whether or not a particular group chooses to take offense. Black people constantly refer to each other with the word that is supposedly a slur, so it's clearly nothing inherent to the word itself.
No, "nigger" and "nigga" are not the same words. And if you think that terms like nigger, or kike, or mick, or wop, were not intended as slurs, we apparently live in different universes.
In what way are they not the same? If a white person publicly says the latter, in what way would the results be appreciably different than saying the former? Will people even recognize that they didn't say the former?
See discussion here
The theoretical model is not difficult to derive, but does not answer the question. I'm asking for your evidence that such a model possesses any connection to the social realities our society actually operates under, that the "a"-ending-word does not possess the same Deplorable Word effect as its hard-r progenitor.
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