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Culture War Roundup for the week of June 19, 2023

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It is far away from the argument, but it's also far more correct. Note that your framing is selectively allocating agency to the Poles and the Brits/Germans to choose in response to the German demands, just as Flynn's framing attributes agency to the American influence driving others decisions, but neither address that the Germans themselves had the agency in not only making unreasonable demands, but also the agency to not make those demands. The dictator is not an immovable fact of nature, for which there is no reasoning and agency only exists with the responder. The dictator is an agent, and has used their agency to posit the demand in the first place.

Avoiding this point- that people are resisting unreasonable German demands- is required to credibly claim that the Poles were unreasonable in not compromising to them, because there is no failure in reason or competence to resist the unreasonable. But the German Nazis were being unreasonable, and the other actors were being reasonable in resisting the unreasonable, and so re-establing the actual originating context- that the Germans were the originating actors and making unreasonable demands- is the more correct point for conveying not the argument, but the actual context the argument is trying to ignore.

Your contention relies on the Germans requests being unreasonable when you could just as easily say that they weren't. Not the least considering Poland could have been much better for it, along with all of Europe, if they had aligned themselves with Germany against communism and what National Socialists recognized as capitalism in the hands of the international jew.

My argument isn't selective about anything. I think you should step back and recognize just what narrative is being revised. Hitler could have done things differently, but the obvious case here is that so could everyone else. In the context of general WW2 narratives that shovel all blame on Hitler in particular, and to a lesser extent the Treaty of Versailles, there exists an obvious angle of blame that is never talked about lest it draw attention away from the great myths we have created out of Hitler and the holocaust.

Not the least considering Poland could have been much better for it, along with all of Europe, if they had aligned themselves with Germany against communism

No, it would not go better for Poland given that Germans genuinely consider Poles as subhumans.

what National Socialists recognized as capitalism in the hands of the international jew.

that particular stupidity solved nothing, was mistaken and resulted in several millions of innocent people being murdered

You pro-slavery, pro-mass-murder and pro-Hitler (ok, that is redundant a bit) apologia is spectacularly stupid and evil.

No, it would not go better for Poland given that Germans genuinely consider Poles as subhumans.

Please stop telling lies. The Germans considered West-Poles to be aryans. Hitler said of slavs that they were docile so long they had food and drink.

that particular stupidity solved nothing, was mistaken and resulted in several millions of innocent people being murdered

Please engage with statements in context. This is a waste of time.

You pro-slavery, pro-mass-murder and pro-Hitler (ok, that is redundant a bit) apologia is spectacularly stupid and evil.

This isn't an argument and makes no sense since I have made no pro-slavery or pro-mass-murder statements.

The Germans considered West-Poles to be aryans. Hitler said of slavs that they were docile so long they had food and drink.

Are you now in full scale denial? Germans proceeded to murder people who were not docile.

Germans considered West-Poles to be aryans

Only some of them, and that was only subgroup anyway. And you were eligible if you cooperated with mass-murdering nazis.

They killed British and American soldiers too. You know, because there was a war.

Only some of them, and that was only subgroup anyway.

West-Poles, according to Nazi racial law, were aryans.

And you were eligible if you cooperated with mass-murdering nazis.

Seems like we have gone very far away from Germans considering all Poles subhumans very fast.

They killed British and American soldiers too. You know, because there was a war.

Are you claiming that killings in Poland were limited to soldiers? If no, how this is relevant?

Seems like we have gone very far away from Germans considering all Poles subhumans very fast.

There were few exceptions, which does not change things much.

No major participant in the war limited their killings to soldiers.

There were few exceptions, which does not change things much.

West-Poland was roughly half of the population. Considering how flexible the Germans were with their racial policies towards allies, like making the Japanese honorary Aryans, there's no reason to look at anti-slav rhetoric, most of which existing as war propaganda against the Soviets, as anything other than a placeholder for whatever would suit German necessity. Considering the idealism Hitler displayed towards Europe as a collection of nations, especially with regards to Britain, and to a further extent his respect towards Polish anti-communists like Pilsudski, there's no reason to assume any hardline ideological animus towards Poles from the Germans if Poland had aligned themselves with Germany rather than Britain, France and the US.

No major participant in the war limited their killings to soldiers.

There is major difference between some incidental deaths, or killings due to disregarding civilian casualties and deliberate murder of millions - and doing it as a goal, also when it hurt war effort.

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