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No it did not. There has famously never been any written document or order found demonstrating a concerted effort to exterminate all the Jews. Such an order never existed and that was not the German policy.
Some Jews were killed definitely in reprisals etc. But there was no "extermination plan" as claimed, that is a lie as much as the gas chamber story.
You are doing, without a hint of irony or self-awareness, the exact thing that Amadan just criticised you for doing.
You just jumped from "was there an organised attempt to kill all the Jews?" to "was there a specific individual document that said to kill all the Jews?", even though that is not the same question at all, and that is exactly what Amadan just said you would do.
There was neither an organized attempt to kill all the Jews nor any orders or written plans to do so. That is made-up propaganda. The lack of any documents is very strong evidence that nothing of the sort was ever organized, and the lack of documents, plans, or written orders for some alleged initiative to kill all the Jews is very well-known.
At which point you run into the question that Amadan and others have asked you in the past - account for all the missing Jews. This discussion has happened before, and the denier position leads to the pretty implausible position that the Nazis hated the Jews, wanted to kill all the Jews, and millions of Jews died, and somehow the Nazis were not involved with the deaths of the Jews. That is facially absurd.
So you quibble documentary evidence in order to distract from and avoid the headline claim - that the Nazi German state killed millions of Jews. I don't particularly care whether or not you can find a memo from Hitler; I care about what happened. And as past discussions have borne out, the evidence that the Nazis killed millions of Jews is pretty darn robust.
What does "account for all the missing Jews" even mean? If you claim 800,000 people were murdered at a precisely known location, but there's no documentary or physical evidence for the claim, it falls apart.
There isn't even a list of names or anything of those alleged 800,000 victims, they are anonymous, which is another dubious aspect of the claim.
Anonymous victims, no documentary evidence for the event, no physical evidence for the event, no bodies or mass graves, no contemporary witness account of the event. Impossible claims of 5,000 people being cremated every single day on primitive outdoor cremations with not a single observation of that operation, the smoke of which would have been clearly visible from Warsaw and even Lublin. No reports from the Polish underground of such an operation who were spying in the area.
Edit: On top of that Revisionists have already proven the Extermination camp narrative and gas chamber narrative was a lie at Majdanek. So there is already precedent for Soviet-Polish investigators lying or being wrong about such an operation at other camps in Poland.
And likewise homicidal gas chambers disguised as shower rooms were initially claimed at the Western camps but disproven after investigation. So what are the chances that all of these claims were proven false at the Western camps and Majdanek, but then they actually happened at Treblinka?
The claim was made in both the West and East camps. The West camps were investigated and the claim was disproven. The East camps were "investigated" by the Soviets and they did not allow Western observers to participate in the investigation. They modified structures post-war and claimed they were original like the gas chamber shown on tour in Auschwitz.
10% of Poles were Jewish before the war. A large number of the cities that were in the Pale of settlement were majority or plurality Jewish. An the there were many Jewish farming villages in the pale as well. Where did they all go?
Many evacuated into the Soviet Union ahead of the German advance. Many were deported into Russia by the Soviet Union themselves and likely died there or assimilated. Many did die directly by the Germans or general wartime conditions, the mortality on Poland in general was extremely high, for Poles as well. Many want to Israel, or the United States.
But if you are saying they were all gassed in shower rooms at a precisely known location, then we can review the evidence for that claim and find the weight of the evidence does not remotely justify confidence in those sensational and extremely unusual claims.
But also, like I just said in my other comment the methodology of relying on sequences of census data to assert an indisputable level of mortality is fundamentally flawed in and of itself. Pre-war estimates were revised upwards post-hoc, and post-war estimates were revised downwards post-hoc, and the only estimate that has never been revised is the 1945 estimate. So every single post-hoc revision of those estimates has served to increase the theoretical mortality of that period, coincidentally.
The mortality in Poland was especially high but we would expect that to be more evenly distributed. The pre war population of Jews in Poland was 10%. The Postwar population was virtually none and the population of in Poland is nill now. This was not according to estimated numbers but the official Polish census So where did they go? All the Jews in Warsaw just packed up and moved to the Soviet Union? The Soviet Union is not a black box you can't just through millions of people there. They kept detailed records like the totalitarian state they were and also didn't really allow assimilation in the sense that everyone had their nationality listed on their identity cards and the Soviets viewed Judaism as a nationality. There were a many totally assimilated Soviet Jews but their ID cards still said Jewish. This is why there are now pork shops in Israel because these totally assimilated Jews were still able to prove their Jewishness. Now that might make your hypothesis seem correct except the Soviet Union is also short on Jews
Vilnius and Kiev and the entire pale also have missing Jews. Because the places historically had quite a lot The numbers for this are from the Russian census in 1897 of just Yiddish speakers. Again census not an estimation. Since the 1990s we have access to the full Soviet census records and these people are not there. Nor is there evidence of a huge influx from Poland and the Soviets did keep records of this. Even totally assimilated Jews who didn't practice and eat pork were still considered Jews because the Soviet viewed them as race/nationality. These records show all kinds of other Soviet atrocities based on nationality namely Stalin's deportations they aren't sanitized. The Soviet archives were hugely open during the 90s.
As well then we get to the issue of motive. Did you know that the Soviets intensely disliked the Western holocaust narrative because they though it focused to much on Jews? They thought it elevated Jews too much when the German invasion had caused great suffering and death for all the Soviet people's the holocaust as such as a singular action was not really taught in the Soviet Union. But rather integrated into the whole narrative of the great Patriotic War. Why would the Soviets go the effort to fabricate a narrative they hate.
You know this isn't the mainstream narrative right? Which hold that more than half of the Jews killed died from overwork or more likely massacred in a muddy field in Eastern Europe by the Einsatzgruppen. Even if you proved that Auschwitz was entirely a myth you'd still half to deal with the missing Jews and the state sanctioned death squads. Which how do you deal with them do you think the Einsatzgruppen were a real thing and if so what were there purpose?
I've already explained that differentiating census data across years is only a theoretical approximation of mortality due to measurement error. And in the case of estimates of Jewish population, it seems the errors were in opposite directions pre-war and post-war, which is highly convenient for the narrative they rely on for their global status.
Did you know that the 2020 census shows an 8.6% decline in White people between 2010 and 2020? I don't mean as a proportional representation, I mean those people simply disappeared. Where did they go? Were they lured into bagel shops in Brooklyn and murdered in the tunnels under Chabad?
The problem with using these estimates for mortality is that it precludes the existence of measurement error, in particular in the cases where measurement error is incentivized by wartime narratives which it is in this case.
Yes I do, it is claimed approximately 3 million Jews were killed inside gas chambers disguised as shower rooms. So the vaunted 6 million still has another 3 million to account for. The Einsatzgruppen were real, their purpose was anti-partisan measures.
The fundamental problem is, let's say I'm correct and the "Gas chambers disguised as shower rooms" never existed. So where did 6 million deaths come from? When did they die? Where? That's not a rhetorical question, if you remove the gas chamber story then trying to tally nearly that degree of mortality is simply impossible given existing evidence. Did millions die in the ghettos? No evidence. Did millions die by the Einsatzgruppen? No evidence. If you take away the gas chamber story, there is no alternative explanation for when, where, or how those Jews were supposed to have been killed. If you disagree, I challenge you to present an alterative theory to where 6 millions Jews were supposed to have died and when. That's why the gas chamber story is clung to so dearly, there is no alternative explanation for where those ~3 million theoretical Jews were supposed to have died, and the "six million" symbolic figure is inextricable with the gas chamber story.
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