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A bit meta - but why is nobody here talking about - congressional hearings about twitter files, new January 6th footage - those look like a prime culture war fodder. And yet it is suspiciously silent here? Personally my reason is that I can't just wrap my head around what is going on really.
I’ll share something about the J6 footage. The video shows that the “shaman” Jacob Chansly was a non-violent protestor on good terms with the police whom guided him through the corridors of the capitol. He is on video praying for the police and telling everyone to leave peacefully after reading Trump’s tweet. Also persuasive is the fact that only 106 officers were injured, whereas 180+ officers were injured when the progressive insurrectionists in 2020 attempted to seize the White House (burning down a piece of history in the process, a church of God). Remember that the media then laughed because Trump was placed in a safe location.
This only interests me a little though. What’s more interesting and scary is talking to an older relative who refuses to even watch the tape. Why? Because the news pushed stories to his iPhone immediately after Tucker’s monologue (which has 4mil views only on YouTube plus everyone who watches JRE plus etc). The News pushed debunks, or perhaps prebunks, in an attempt to inoculate their
subjectsviewers from ever being persuaded by Tucker’s video. None of it had anything that even vaguely amounts to a debunking. If Chansley was indeed violent, it should be as trivial as publishing the clip. The shaman didn’t exactly blend in with the crowd. But in fact, they can’t debunk it, so they just attack Tucker with persuasive linguistic programming.I also noticed how insanely uninformed my relative was on what happened in the Greater Insurrection of 2020. His entire memory of the event is “Trump dispersed peaceful protestors for a photo op”. The media is so crafty and so consistent in their messaging, it leads to such resilient disinformation. What, the President shouldn’t be able to speak a few miles from his house, about the piece of history insurrectionist burned down? That’s clearly insane.
Violence is not an element of the crime Chansley pleaded guilty to, obstruction of an official proceeding. So it is irrelevant whether he was violent.
In other words, for an extremely broad offense that was created to use against people interfering with trials and has never been used against protesters before, despite it being common for protesters to disrupt congress or other government proceedings.
https://archive.ph/XeEi2
That is incorrect. 18 U.S. Code § 1515 says:
So, it does not apply only to disruption of trials.
Even if that is true (and see below), the problem with that is that under the textualist method of interpreting legislation, legislative history and Congressional intent are largely irrelevant, if the words of a statute are clear:
Food Marketing Institute v. Argus Leader Media, 139 S. Ct. 2356, 2364 (2019) [Opn by Gorsuch, joined by Roberts, Thomas, Kavanaugh, Alito and Kagan].
And see the LONG discussion of the application of Section 1512(c)(2) to Jan 6 here. Why is the court wrong?
That is what I said. It is an extremely broad law that was originally created with the ostensible purpose of stopping stuff like destruction of evidence or intimidation of witnesses, and was previously only applied in that way, but that going by the text can be used to apply severe criminal charges to broad categories of protest activities. Now, if it was applied equally I might be at least somewhat sympathetic to the idea of cracking down on protest in general and pushing all political questions to be settled in the voting booth. But what makes it worse is that it is clearly being applied selectively based on the viewpoint of the protesters, a novel application of a law created because those charging them find the political cause of "Pence shouldn't certify the election results due to supposed evidence of fraud" particularly objectionable.
Your own link admits how absurdly broad the text is:
So how exactly do they distinguish between political activity prohibited by the text of the law that "nobody would seriously contend" actually violates it, and political activity prohibited by the text of the law that gets you years in prison? Well, they think this protest was bad:
Notice how, for instance, other protesters committing violence renders it "no mere political protest" and serves as justification for applying the law to nonviolent protesters like Chansley. That's sure not the standard that was applied to BLM protesters, including the ones who disrupted "official proceedings" by doing stuff like repeatedly setting that Portland courthouse on fire. But of course the primary determination of how the apply such a broad law isn't even with the court deciding which protests they like and which they don't, it's with those deciding to charge people with it in the first place. Code Pink loved to "obstruct, influence, or impede" Congress, but obviously nobody ever charged them under this law. In fact after writing that sentence I searched and here's an article from 2 weeks ago:
Code Pink protesters disrupt inaugural House China committee hearing
The capability of motivated reasoning to come up with reasons why such an overbroad law should apply to your political enemies is more than sufficient. The law should either not exist or at least not be interpreted as applying to cases anything close to this.
I took your claim to be that the law did not apply to the Jan 6 events. But if your claim is instead that it is overbroad, that is a different question. Maybe it is. But note that other courts, in completely different contexts, have rejected that precise argument re this precise law. To quote the case I linked:
The Court then observed that the indictment alleged acts intended to disrupt the proceeding, not mere speech.
Moreover:
United States v. Williams, 553 US 285, 293 (2008).
Also, "[f]acial overbreadth has not been invoked when a limiting construction has been or could be placed on the challenged statute," Broadrick v. Oklahoma, 413 U.S. 601, 613 (1973). Construing the law to not apply to speech, even loud disruptive speech such as the Code Pink one, goes a long way toward addressing potential overbreadth issues.
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Do you believe that is the normal punishment for such crime?
Well, according to the plea agreement, the sentencing guidelines range was 41 to 51 months. He got 41. So, yes.
The question isn’t what sentencing guidelines say. The question is what does the average person get. For example, certain protestors without authorization got into private areas for senators to protest Kavanaugh. Were those persons even arrested let alone stuck with 41 months? The context of these statutes do suggest some degree of violence.
Moreover the elements of the crime require that it be unauthorized. Yet here the defendant is thanking the police for letting them in and was escorted by 9 police officers when there was no one else around; these police officers even tried to unlock doors for him. This is at least a mitigating factor.
He should’ve gotten jail time but 3.5 years seems excessive given that other protestors probably received zero jail time and the context muddies the water.
I am not familiar with those specific people. Did they do so with the intent to disrupt an official proceeding? And, apparently 300 people were arrested at some point. Not sure if they are the ones you are referring to.
Where do you see that? The statute reads:
I think you might be thinking of another charge such as entering or remaining in a restricted building
Well, he did get the low end of the sentencing range. And, besides, the final offense level it calculated after mitigating and aggravating circumstances are added. Eg: According to the plea agreement, his agreed-upon offense level was reduced for acceptance of responsibility
You are missing the point. Sure, you can certainly make the case that Jacob Chansley’s actions were criminal if you look only at the bare letter of the law, and ignore context. The argument is, however, that there have been thousands of other people, hundreds in the specific example of Kavanaugh hearings, that also broke the bare letter of the law in roughly the same degree of egregiousness as Chansley, but none of whom even faced anything close to criminal trial, much less years in prison. The argument here is about malicious prosecution which is completely outside historical norms for the behavior.
Imagine, for example, that federal government found that some of these protesters are not US citizens, but permanent residents, and found that they are not carrying their green card, as required by law, and charged them with misdemeanor and put them for 30 days in jail. The letter of the law clearly allows that, but it would be completely outrageous, as this law is never enforced in any other circumstance, so it would be hard to see it as anything other than malicious political targeting.
Yes, I am familiar with the concept of selective prosecution (not malicious prosecution, which is a tort). But if you are going to claim that they "broke the bare letter of the law in roughly the same degree of egregiousness as Chansley," you should probably cite some evidence of what explicitly they did. Because it seems to me that attempting to prevent the peaceful transfer of power from the loser of an election to the winner is pretty egregious.
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Count 2, 3, and 5.
And yes there was an intent to interfere with Kavanaugh deliberations.
Additionally, I imagine the looters who were attacking the White House got less than 3.5 years.
That is, there is massive discretion in charging and pleas. Citing the sentencing guidance is far downstream of the relevant decisions.
Yes, there is, and prosecutors always charge as much as possible, and most charges are eventually dropped when more facts come to the fore (and sometimes charges are added when more facts come to the fore). The entire allegation is that this guy was treated more harshly than is normal, but what the prosecutors did as in fact completely normal. That doesn't mean it is ok, but the claim that he was somehow was singled out is not supported by simply pointing to what was alleged in the indictment.
I cannot comment unless you can link to exactly what you are referring to.
Were they attempting to disrupt an official proceeding? It doesn't sound like it.
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No, but do you believe that the official 12th-amendment electoral vote count is the normal official proceeding for such crime?
No but it doesn’t seem to me much worse compared to say interfering with the advice and consent for a SCOTUS justice.
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But in actuality, not by the letter of the law but how it plays out, the residue of violence colors the view of judges and prosecutors. Chansley was held without bail, and he was charged extravagantly despite all of the other protestors being guilty of the same crime.
Charged extravagently? Obstruction of an official proceeding seems to be the most serious charge in the indictment. And if you think 6 counts is extravagent, you clearly are not familiar with standard practice.
... I get that you're bouncing off the "corruptly obstructing official proceeding" having the maximum theoretical charge, but it's "Violent Entry and Disorderly Conduct in a Capitol Building" seems kinda relevant. The man's a putz, but you can stick with the truth and still say that.
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